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In Naive Set Theory by Halmos, he states: "The explicit definition of an ordered pair ((a, b) = { {a}, {a, b} }) is frequently relegated to pathological set theory." What does he mean by this? Or rather, what sorts of logical fallacies can arise from Kuratowski's notion of an ordered pair? I fail to see the potential issue at hand here and would like to be made aware of it. I can read whatever you send me.
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